A 55-year-old man comes to the emergency department due to a 3-day history of abdominal cramps and diarrhea. He has had 5-7 watery stools a day, including at night. Three weeks ago, the patient was hospitalized for a perforated peptic ulcer that was complicated by peritonitis; he received antibiotics and underwent abdominal washout and distal gastrectomy. The initial postoperative course was uncomplicated. Temperature is 38.3 C (100.9 F) , blood pressure is 116/74 mm Hg, and pulse is 96/min. Abdominal examination shows mild distension and diffuse tenderness. Bowel sounds are normal. The surgical wounds are clean, intact, and without discharge. Which of the following is the most likely cause of this patient's diarrhea?
A) Bacterial overgrowth in the small intestine
B) Colonic ischemia
C) Germination of bacterial spores
D) Rapid emptying of hyperosmolar chyme into the small intestine
E) Vagal nerve injury to the stomach
Correct Answer:
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