A 51-year-old man comes to the emergency department due to abdominal cramping, nausea, and bloody diarrhea. The patient reports having 2 episodes of large-volume, red- to maroon-colored, liquid stool over the past hour. He has also been feeling lightheaded but has had no vomiting, chest pain, or dyspnea. He sprained his ankle while playing racquetball 2 weeks ago and has been taking ibuprofen. He reports no chronic health issues and has never had similar symptoms in the past. Screening colonoscopy a year ago revealed scattered diverticulosis but was otherwise unremarkable. He smokes a pack of cigarettes daily and drinks a 6-pack of beer every week. Temperature is 37.3 C (99.1 F) , pulse is 112/min, and blood pressure is 116/70 mm Hg while supine and 90/60 mm Hg while standing. The patient appears anxious and diaphoretic. Cardiopulmonary examination is normal with the exception of tachycardia. The abdomen is nondistended and soft with mild generalized tenderness. There is no guarding or rebound tenderness, and bowel sounds are hyperactive. Rectal examination reveals maroon-colored stool. Fingerstick hemoglobin is 12 g/dL. Blood samples for cell counts, serum chemistry, and type and crossmatch are obtained. Intravenous access is established and intravenous fluids are administered. Which of the following is the best next step in management of this patient?
A) Abdominal CT angiography
B) Bowel preparation for colonoscopy
C) Esophagogastroduodenoscopy
D) Radionuclide bleeding scanning
E) Wireless video capsule endoscopy
Correct Answer:
Verified
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