A 48-year-old woman complains of persistent fatigue and daytime sleepiness. Her other medical problems include hypertension and rheumatoid arthritis. Her medications include naproxen, enalapril, and a multivitamin supplement with iron. She has no known drug allergies. Vital signs are within normal limits. Examination shows conjunctival pallor and bilateral hand joint deformities with tenderness to palpation at metacarpophalangeal joints. Stool testing for occult blood is negative. Laboratory results are as follows:
Which of the following would be the most appropriate next step in managing this patient's anemia?
A) Folinic acid
B) Infliximab
C) Intravenous iron
D) Plasmapheresis
E) Splenectomy
Correct Answer:
Verified
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