A 26-year-old woman, gravida 1 para 0, comes to the office to initiate prenatal care. The patient has had no nausea, abdominal pain, or vaginal bleeding since her last menstrual period 8 weeks ago. She has no chronic medical conditions. She had an appendectomy as a child but no other surgery. The patient takes a daily prenatal vitamin and does not use tobacco, alcohol, or illicit drugs. She is a vegetarian and emigrated from Southeast Asia 5 years ago. Blood pressure is 110/75 mm Hg and pulse is 80/min. BMI is 21 kg/m2. Pelvic examination reveals an 8-week-sized, nontender uterus and no adnexal masses or tenderness. Laboratory results are as follows:
A transvaginal ultrasound reveals an 8-week intrauterine gestation with a normal heartbeat. Which of the following is the most likely cause of this patient's anemia?
A)Folate deficiency
B)Glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase deficiency
C)Iron deficiency
D)Physiologic anemia of pregnancy
E)Thalassemia trait
Correct Answer:
Verified
Q286: A 48-year-old woman complains of persistent fatigue
Q287: A 13-month-old boy is brought to the
Q288: A 57-year-old woman comes to the primary
Q289: A 56-year-old man with a recent diagnosis
Q290: A 5-year-old boy is brought to an
Q292: A 16-month-old full-term girl is brought to
Q293: A 53-year-old woman comes to the emergency
Q294: A 36-year-old Caucasian female is seen in
Q295: A 55-year-old Caucasian male presents to your
Q296: A 53-year-old man complains of acute onset
Unlock this Answer For Free Now!
View this answer and more for free by performing one of the following actions
Scan the QR code to install the App and get 2 free unlocks
Unlock quizzes for free by uploading documents