A 43-year-old man comes to the hospital with 2 days of persistent fever, headache, malaise, and intense muscle and joint pain. He has been taking ibuprofen, which provides only mild relief. The patient frequently travels internationally for business and returned from India a week ago. He received appropriate vaccinations prior to travel, took all advised prophylactic medications, and consumed bottled water during the trip. His temperature is 38.9 C (102 F) , blood pressure is 110/70 mm Hg, and pulse is 98/min. After an inflated sphygmomanometer cuff is on his arm for a few minutes, he develops severe petechiae; however, he has no other skin rash. He has mild cervical lymphadenopathy. There are no heart murmurs. Lungs are clear to auscultation. The abdomen is nontender, and the liver is palpated 3 cm below the costal margin. Laboratory results are as follows:
For which of the following is this patient at greatest risk?
A) Cerebral edema
B) Circulatory collapse
C) Intestinal perforation
D) Jaundice and renal failure
E) Spleen injury
Correct Answer:
Verified
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