A 34-year-old woman, gravida 3 para 2, at 12 weeks gestation comes to the office for a routine prenatal visit. The patient reports no nausea, vomiting, abdominal pain, or vaginal bleeding. The patient's 2 previous pregnancies were complicated by poorly controlled type 2 diabetes mellitus and resulted in term cesarean deliveries for fetal macrosomia. Both children are healthy. The patient has no other chronic medical conditions. She takes a prenatal vitamin daily, and her glucose levels are controlled with an insulin regimen. She does not use tobacco, alcohol, or illicit drugs. Family history is noncontributory. Blood pressure is 120/70 mm Hg and pulse is 68/min. BMI is 30 kg/m2. Bedside Doppler examination reveals a fetal heart rate of 164/min. The patient requested a first-trimester combined test, and the results revealed normal-range nuchal translucency thickness, low pregnancy-associated plasma protein A, and an elevated β-hCG level. The results are discussed and the patient desires further management of these results. Which of the following is the best recommendation in management of this patient's laboratory findings?
A) Recommend no further testing as these results are common in women with diabetes mellitus
B) Recommend performing a chorionic villus sampling for fetal karyotyping
C) Recommend repeating the first-trimester screening due to increased sensitivity with increasing gestational age
D) Recommend terminating the pregnancy due to a fetal anomaly not compatible with life
Correct Answer:
Verified
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