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A 33-Year-Old Woman, Gravida 2 Para 1 Aborta 1, Comes

Question 401

Multiple Choice

A 33-year-old woman, gravida 2 para 1 aborta 1, comes to the office for preconception counseling.  The patient feels well.  Her first pregnancy, approximately 6 years ago, was complicated by diet-controlled gestational diabetes mellitus and by preeclampsia with severe features that required hospitalization at 32 weeks gestation and cesarean delivery at 34 weeks gestation.  After delivery, the patient was discharged on antihypertensives, which were discontinued 6 weeks postpartum.  She had a normal 2-hour glucose tolerance test at the same visit.  Her second pregnancy 4 years ago resulted in a spontaneous abortion at 7 weeks gestation.  The patient has no other chronic medical conditions and only takes a daily prenatal vitamin.  She practices yoga 4 or 5 times a week.  The patient does not use tobacco or illicit drugs but drinks alcohol socially once or twice a month.  Blood pressure is 100/70 mm Hg.  BMI is 20 kg/m2.  Pelvic examination is normal.  In addition to continuing prenatal vitamins, which of the following is the best advice for this patient?


A) Additional folic acid supplementation to decrease the risk of neural tube defects
B) Begin aspirin in the second trimester to decrease the risk of preeclampsia recurrence
C) Vaginal progesterone to decrease the risk of preterm birth recurrence
D) Weight loss and low-carbohydrate diet to decrease the recurrence risk of gestational diabetes mellitus

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