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A 25-Year-Old Woman, Gravida 2 Para 1, Comes to the Office

Question 414

Multiple Choice

A 25-year-old woman, gravida 2 para 1, comes to the office at 28 weeks gestation for her initial prenatal visit.  She is known to be Rh(D) -negative, and her husband is Rh(D) -positive.  Her previous pregnancy was uncomplicated, with no episodes of bleeding prior to delivery.  The patient's labor was complicated by a significant intrapartum abruptio placentae, although she ultimately had a vaginal delivery.  She received the same standard dose of anti-D immune globulin at 28 weeks gestation and immediately postpartum.  She did not require a blood transfusion and recovered with iron supplementation.  Prior to this visit, the patient came to the emergency department due to cramping without bleeding, and a transvaginal ultrasound at that time was consistent with 8 weeks gestation.  Today, she has no vaginal bleeding, leakage of fluid, or contractions; fetal movements are occasional.  She has no chronic medical problems and no surgical history.  Temperature is 36.7 C (98 F) , blood pressure is 100/70 mm Hg, and pulse is 80/min.  Fundal height is 30 cm.  Fetal heart rate is 145/min.  Routine blood work shows that anti-D antibody titers are 1:32.  Which is the most likely explanation for the positive antibody results in this patient?


A) Inadequate dose of anti-D immune globulin at 28 weeks of her first pregnancy
B) Inadequate dose of anti-D immune globulin postpartum
C) No prophylaxis administered early in this pregnancy
D) No prophylaxis between pregnancies
E) Too-early administration of anti-D immune globulin postpartum

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