A 19-year-old woman, gravida 1 para 0, comes to the office at 28 weeks gestation for a routine prenatal visit. Her prenatal course was complicated by vaginal bleeding at 8 weeks gestation due to a subchorionic hematoma. At that time, laboratory evaluation in the emergency department showed that she was Rh(D) negative, and she received anti-D immune globulin. The vaginal bleeding resolved, and the patient has had no other problems during this pregnancy. She has no chronic medical problems or previous surgeries. The patient does not use tobacco, alcohol, or illicit drugs. Blood pressure is 110/70 mm Hg and heart rate is 80/min. Fundal height is 28 cm and fetal heart rate is 145/min. Laboratory evaluation today shows a negative anti-D antibody screen. The patient is no longer in contact with the father of her child, and his Rh(D) status is unknown. Which of the following is the best next step concerning Rh(D) alloimmunization in this patient?
A) Anti-D immune globulin should be administered now and postpartum
B) Anti-D immune globulin should be administered only postpartum
C) No additional prophylaxis is indicated as she previously received anti-D immune globulin
D) No prophylaxis is indicated as the father's status is unknown
E) Prophylaxis is not indicated as anti-D antibody screening is negative
Correct Answer:
Verified
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