A 79-year-old female nursing home resident is brought to the clinic by a nurse from the facility. Three years ago, the patient was diagnosed with dementia, and her memory and behavior have gradually worsened. Staff members report that she has been exhibiting increased aggression and paranoia over the last few weeks. She has pushed staff members and tried to rush out of the nursing facility. The patient does not recall these episodes. Gabapentin, valproate, citalopram, and trazodone were tried but did not improve her worsening symptoms. She has a history of hypertension and diabetes, which are well controlled with medication. She had a myocardial infarction approximately 10 years ago with no cardiac symptoms since then. The patient's vital signs are within normal limits, and on examination there are no abnormal findings except for areas of ecchymosis on her upper extremities. ECG is normal, and QTc interval is 430 msecs. The physician recommends low-dose risperidone. The patient's daughter, who is her guardian, is notified of the treatment plan and is concerned as she heard there is an increased risk of death associated with antipsychotics. She asks the physician about the safety of the medication. Which of the following is the most appropriate response regarding the potential safety risks of this class of medications?
A) The mortality risk is increased only for patients with pre-existing cardiac abnormalities.
B) There is a decreased mortality risk, although there is an increased risk of adverse cardiac events.
C) There is an increased mortality risk, but the short-term benefits of the antipsychotic may outweigh the risks.
D) There is no increased mortality risk from antipsychotic use in patients with dementia.
E) There will be no increase in mortality risk as long as we monitor for ECG changes.
Correct Answer:
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