A 32-year-old woman comes to the office for a follow-up. She has a history of mild asthma, migraine headaches, and bipolar I disorder. The patient was hospitalized for a depressive episode 8 months ago and was started on quetiapine. She responded well to the medication and was feeling fine, so she discontinued it 3 months ago. The patient tells the psychiatrist, "The depression lifted after a few months on the medication, which was such a relief. I was so down before and couldn't enjoy anything, but now I am really doing great. I just applied for 2 new jobs. Also, I met a fantastic new guy 2 weeks ago, and we've been together ever since. He is literally the man of my dreams." She also says, "We are engaged, and we're getting married in 3 weeks; I'm so excited. I really don't want to take medicine because I feel terrific and we plan to start a family right away." The patient's mood, quality of sleep, and appetite are good, and she continues to maintain her job at a real estate office. On mental status examination, she is neatly dressed and groomed; she has a bright affect and mildly pressured speech. Which of the following is the most appropriate intervention for this patient?
A) Explain to her that she is becoming manic and restart quetiapine
B) Explore her feelings about her fiancé and decision to marry
C) Express concern that her behavior is due to hypomania and advise her not to proceed with the wedding
D) Offer congratulations, but schedule follow-up in a week to monitor her closely
E) Recommend valproic acid to target her hypomanic symptoms
Correct Answer:
Verified
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