A 57-year-old man comes to the office for a follow-up visit two weeks after an emergency department (ED) visit during which a sudden rise in his blood pressure to 190/110 mmHg was noted. He has had essential hypertension for approximately twelve years, optimally controlled by hydrochlorothiazide and amlodipine, until this past month when his blood pressure readings were consistently higher than before. He has been extremely compliant with his diet and medications. He does not have any other medical problems. He has smoked one pack of cigarettes daily for 20 years. He denies any recent use of alcohol or illicit drugs. In the office, his blood pressure is 160/94 mmHg in the right arm and 162/96 mmHg in the left arm. His BMI is 28 kg/m2. Cardiovascular examination reveals regular heart sounds and a 1/6 systolic murmur at the apex. There is a faint right-sided carotid bruit. Left-sided popliteal and posterior tibialis pulses are barely palpable. His serum creatinine level is 1.1 mg/dL. Which of the following is most helpful in establishing this patient's diagnosis?
A) Captopril renal scintigraphy
B) Intravenous pyelogram
C) Low-dose dexamethasone suppression test
D) MR angiography of the renal arteries
E) Urine total metanephrines
Correct Answer:
Verified
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