A 34-year-old woman, gravida 2 para 1, is evaluated for hospital discharge 8 hours after surgery. She came to the emergency room this morning with hypotension, tachycardia, and vaginal bleeding and was diagnosed with a ruptured ectopic pregnancy for which she underwent a laparoscopic right salpingectomy. The patient's only prior surgery was a cesarean section. Two units of packed red blood cells were transfused in the emergency department and another two in the operating room due to acute blood loss anemia; she also received 2 L of normal saline. A Foley catheter was placed immediately prior to surgery and removed before the patient awakened from anesthesia, after an intraoperative urine output of 200 mL was noted. There were no complications. However, the patient has been unable to pass flatus or void since the procedure. She has mild nausea but no fever, dizziness, weakness, or vomiting. Light vaginal bleeding is present. Blood pressure is 140/90 mm Hg and pulse is 98/min. The abdomen is soft and mildly distended with suprapubic tenderness but no rebound or guarding. Tympany is present under the right costal margin. The incisions are closed and the primary dressings are clean, dry, and intact. Which of the following is the most likely cause of this patient's current condition?
A) Intraabdominal hemorrhage
B) Intraoperative bladder injury
C) Intraoperative ureteral injury
D) Small bowel obstruction
E) Urinary retention
Correct Answer:
Verified
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