A 39-month-old boy is brought to the office due to fever. He has had fever spikes the past 5 days that have not improved with oral acetaminophen. He has been very cranky and his appetite has decreased. The patient has had a slightly stuffy nose but no cough, emesis, or diarrhea. He has also developed a bad diaper rash that has not improved with topical barrier ointments. The patient does not attend day care, and there are no sick contacts at home. Medical history is significant for an episode of otitis media last year and occasional upper respiratory infections, but he has had no chronic medical illnesses. Immunizations are up to date, and the patient takes no medications. Temperature is 40 C (104 F) , blood pressure is 100/70 mm Hg, pulse is 120/min, and respirations are 18/min. On physical examination, the child is awake and alert but very cranky. The head is normocephalic and atraumatic. The conjunctivae are injected without discharge bilaterally, and the pupils are equal and reactive to light and accommodation. There is scant nasal congestion. The lips, tongue, and oral mucosa are erythematous, but there is no pharyngeal erythema or exudate. Neck is supple without lymphadenopathy. S1 and S2 are normal without murmurs; lungs are clear to auscultation bilaterally. Abdomen is soft, nontender, and nondistended, without organomegaly. There is nontender erythema and peeling of the skin in the perineum and inguinal folds and several erythematous, blanching macules on the trunk; there are no other skin lesions.
Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in the management of this patient?
A) Order C-reactive protein, prescribe ibuprofen, and follow up the next day
B) Perform rapid streptococcal antigen testing
C) Prescribe oral antibiotics
D) Prescribe oral antifungal therapy
E) Recommend ibuprofen and follow up if symptoms persist after 3-4 days
Correct Answer:
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