A 79-year-old man is brought to the emergency department due to a 2-day history of fever and confusion. His wife reports he has a history of diabetes mellitus; he is frequently noncompliant with his insulin regimen, and his home blood glucose has been >400 mg/dL for the last few days. Temperature is 39.5 C (103.1 F) , blood pressure is 90/60 mm Hg, pulse is 118/min, and respirations are 20/min. The patient is confused and ill appearing. He is oriented to person but not place or time. The perineum is erythematous, warm, and tender to palpation; areas of skin sloughing associated with malodorous discharge are present. CT scan of the abdomen and pelvis reveals necrotizing infection of the perineum. Intravenous fluids, insulin, and antibiotics are administered, and the surgical team is consulted. The emergency department physician has a discussion with the patient's wife about the diagnosis and treatment plan. The patient repeatedly says, "I just want to go home. Do not cut me." Which of the following is the best next step in management of this patient?
A) Administer antibiotics and fluids only but do not involve the surgical team
B) Discharge the patient after having him sign out against medical advice
C) Obtain consent from the wife for the necessary surgical intervention
D) Obtain surgical consent through an emergency court order
E) Wait until his mental status improves and then obtain consent from the patient
Correct Answer:
Verified
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