A 34-year-old man comes to the office to establish care and receive an opioid prescription. His medical concerns include a history of disc atrophy with likely thecal sac entrapment at C2, C3, and C4 that is associated with severe shooting pain with neck extension. He also has a large skin graft on his left upper thigh from a water heater burn. The patient, a general contractor, recently moved to the area and has not yet established a relationship with a new primary care physician. He reports "my previous physician put me on high-dose oxycodone that enabled me to continue working." Physical examination reveals numbness and weakness of both arms, which the patient reports has been getting worse for some time. The physician recommends surgical consultation to discuss surgical options. The patient is reluctant to consider surgery and requests a refill of his opioid pain medication. He explains, "Without the medication, I am unable to work. My family is relying on me. I only have a 1-week supply left." Which of the following is the most appropriate course of action?
A) Ask the patient to sign a pain contract and refill the opioid prescription for 2 weeks
B) Do not prescribe pain medication and refer the patient to a pain management specialist
C) Explain the risks of using high-dose opioids and recommend a trial of nonopioid analgesics
D) Obtain confirmation of the patient's medical and prescription history before proceeding
E) Prescribe only a week's supply of opioids and rediscuss neurosurgery consultation at follow-up
Correct Answer:
Verified
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