Please read the clinical scenario, and then answer the question that follow to become familiar with the traditional NCLEX question format.
Mark is a 21-year-old college student who has come into the campus clinic where you work. He is fairly aloof in his presentation, and informs you, “I’m having a herpes flair, and I need some Valtrex.” However, you decide to do a more thorough assessment. You ask about the lesion he is referring to, and he shows you a lesion on the shaft of his penis. You examine it with a gloved hand, and discover that it seems completely painless to Mark, and is about 2 cm in size and hard.
-Mark informs you that he has a friend who had syphilis,but the lesion healed on its own without antibiotics.Therefore,he does not want to take the antibiotics.What is the best response?
A) "You're right.This will probably heal on its own.You don't need the antibiotics."
B) "The lesion will heal on its own,but latent syphilis will cause serious disease later on and must be treated."
C) "Well,since syphilis is primarily viral in nature,an antibiotic wouldn't help you anyways."
D) "You got yourself into this mess,and only antibiotics will get you out of it."
Correct Answer:
Verified
Q2: Herpes simplex-2 (HSV-2) causes:
A)genital lesions.
B)intensely sensitive vesicles
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