A 54-year-old man presented to the office due to intermittent groin pain. The pain is exacerbated by coughing, straining, and heavyweights lifting. On examination, the patient has left-sided groin swelling found above the inguinal ligament. The swelling has a positive cough impulse. An ultrasound evaluation revealed the mass to be medial to the inferior epigastric vessel. Which of the following is the pathophysiology of the patient's presentation?
A) Failure of the internal inguinal ring to close
B) Patent processus vaginalis
C) Separation of the abdominal muscles
D) Weakness of the transversalis fascia
E) Widening of the femoral ring
Correct Answer:
Verified
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