A 65-year-old man comes to the office complaining of visual abnormalities. One day before the presentation, he started having double vision associated with left eyelid drooping. On examination, the patient has a left dilated pupil with no response to light or accommodation. Additionally, the left eye deviates inferolateral when the patient is asked to start straight. Magnetic resonance angiography shows a basilar artery aneurysm on the left side. Which of the following muscles would not be affected by this lesion?
A) Inferior oblique
B) Inferior rectus
C) Lateral rectus
D) Levator palpebrae
E) Medial rectus
F) Superior rectus
Correct Answer:
Verified
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