A 37-year-old woman is sent to the emergency room after experiencing abrupt right arm weakness and trouble speaking. Although she has no relevant medical history, she uses oral contraceptives. The examination reveals a decline in right upper extremity strength as well as expressive aphasia. Cardiac auscultation is completely normal. A brain MRI demonstrates an acute infarction in the left frontal lobe. An etiology is determined by further examination. During an echocardiogram, bubbles are visible flowing into the left side of the heart after agitated normal saline is injected into a peripheral vein. Which of the following is the most likely source of this patient's observed finding?
A) Aplasia of the atrial septum secundum
B) Failure of the aorticopulmonary septum to develop
C) Incomplete closure of the interventricular foramen
D) Incomplete fusion of atrial septum primum and secundum
E) Persistent channel between aorta and pulmonary artery
Correct Answer:
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