A 19-year-old man arrives to the office complaining of a painful subcutaneous forearm nodule. He had stitches done two weeks previously after suffering a cut on his left forearm while playing soccer. The lesion is biopsied, and the results are presented below:
Which of the following is most likely responsible for this patient's condition?
A) Excess granulation tissue formation
B) Malignant transformation
C) Normal wound remodeling
D) Persistent neutrophil activity
E) Reaction to a foreign body
Correct Answer:
Verified
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