A 25-year-old woman comes to the office due to arthralgias in her hands for the last several months. The pain frequently involves her wrists and proximal finger joints bilaterally, and alternates between being worse in the wrists versus in the hands. The patient has no other medical problems and takes no medications. Complete blood count results are as follows:
Further evaluation reveals proteinuria and red blood cell casts. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
A) Ankylosing spondylitis
B) Myelodysplastic syndrome
C) Primary myelofibrosis
D) Systemic lupus erythematosus
E) Vitamin B12 deficiency
Correct Answer:
Verified
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