A 48-year-old man comes to the emergency department due to fever. He returned from a vacation in Southeast Asia a week ago and began having symptoms toward the end of his trip. He has also had headaches and abdominal discomfort; he initially had constipation but has had loose stools for the past several days. Temperature is 40 C (104 F) , blood pressure is 114/68 mm Hg, and pulse is 62/min. No oropharyngeal lesions, cervical lymphadenopathy, or neck rigidity is present. Lungs are clear on auscultation, and heart sounds are normal. Physical examination reveals a faint, erythematous, macular skin rash over the trunk and abdomen. Blood culture grows non-lactose fermenting gram-negative rods. Which of the following best explains the prolonged and severe disease course from this pathogen compared to the patient's previous bacterial infection?
A) Contact-dependent host cytotoxicity
B) Cross-reacting antibody formation
C) Extensive intra-phagocytic multiplication
D) Potent exotoxin production
E) Villus epithelial cell destruction
Correct Answer:
Verified
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