A 32-year-old nulligravid woman comes to the physician because of postcoital pain and blood-tinged vaginal discharge. She has been sexually active with one male partner for the past 3 months. They do not use condoms. Her only medication is a combined oral contraceptive that she has been taking for the past 2 years. Speculum examination reveals purulent discharge from the cervical os, and the cervix is friable. On bimanual examination, there is no cervical motion tenderness, and the adnexa are nontender bilaterally. Urine pregnancy testing is negative. Microscopy of the discharge shows abundant neutrophils. If left untreated, this patient's condition could lead to which of the following complications?

Question

A 32-year-old nulligravid woman comes to the physician because of postcoital pain and blood-tinged vaginal discharge. She has been sexually active with one male partner for the past 3 months. They do not use condoms. Her only medication is a combined oral contraceptive that she has been taking for the past 2 years.   Speculum examination reveals purulent discharge from the cervical os, and the cervix is friable.  On bimanual examination, there is no cervical motion tenderness, and the adnexa are nontender bilaterally.  Urine pregnancy testing is negative.  Microscopy of the discharge shows abundant neutrophils.  If left untreated, this patient's condition could lead to which of the following complications?

Quizplus · Accepted Answer

Eductional Objective: Neisseria gonorrhoeae and Chlamydia trachomatis can cause acute cervicitis (eg, purulent cervical discharge, friable cervix).  Untreated, cervicitis can progress to pelvic inflammatory disease and long-term complications such as tubal factor infertility and ectopic pregnancy.

A 32-Year-Old Nulligravid Woman Comes to the Physician Because of Postcoital