A 32-year-old woman with gravida 1 para 1 arrives at the clinic for vaginal discharge. The patient has no chronic medical issues and does not use any drugs on a regular basis. Her last menstruation was three weeks ago. The patient has recently started having sexual relations with a new partner and is using an intrauterine device for contraception. The figure below depicts the cytology of the discharge:
Which of the following best describes the predominant organism causing this patient's condition?
A) Anaerobic gram-variable rod
B) Diploid fungus
C) Gram-negative diplococcus
D) Intracellular gram-negative bacterium
E) Motile protozoan
F) Naked DNA virus
Correct Answer:
Verified
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