A 34-year-old man visited the office after seeing white plaques on his buccal mucosa while cleaning his teeth. He was HIV positive after an adequate workup, with a CD4+ T lymphocyte count of 280/mm3. He was referred to an infectious diseases expert for further evaluation, but he failed to keep appointments. The patient returns three years later after suffering from perirectal discomfort and itching for several months. He also experiences occasional rectal bleeding and frequently sees bright red blood on tissue after wiping. Because he believed he had hemorrhoids, the patient did not seek medical attention. A solitary, hard mass with superficial ulceration of about 2x2 cm is discovered in the anal canal during inspection. No hemorrhoids are present. There is no palpable regional lymphadenopathy. Which of the following pathogens is most likely responsible for this patient's current anal pathology?
A) Adenovirus
B) Candida albicans
C) Chlamydia trachomatis
D) Cytomegalovirus
E) Epstein-Barr virus
F) Herpes simplex virus type 2
G) Human papillomavirus
Correct Answer:
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