A 28-year-old man comes to the physician because of a mass in his right scrotum. He has had mild lower abdominal discomfort for the past 3 weeks. Vital signs are within normal limits. There is no inguinal lymphadenopathy. There is a firm nontender nodule over the right testicle. When a light is held behind the scrotum, it does not shine through. When the patient is asked to cough, the nodule does not cause a bulge. The abdomen is soft and nontender. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

Question

Quizplus · Accepted Answer

Eductional Objective: A painless, solid scrotal mass should be considered testicular cancer until proven otherwise.  Examination generally reveals a solid, firm, or fixed nodule in the tunica albuginea that is ovoid in shape and painless to palpation.  Testicular tumors do not transilluminate.

A 28-Year-Old Man Comes to the Physician Because of a Mass