A 10-old boy is brought to the physician for a health examination. He is at the 60th percentile for length and weight. Vital signs are within normal limits. The abdomen is soft and nontender. The external genitalia appear normal. Examination shows a single palpable testicle in the right hemiscrotum. The scrotum is nontender and not enlarged. There is a palpable mass in the left inguinal canal. Biopsy of the mass shows marked fibrotic changes with prominent Leydig cells and hypoplastic Sertoli cells. The patient's parents are advised that the mass should be removed. Which of the following is the most likely explanation for the need for surgery in this patient?

Question

A 10-old boy is brought to the physician for a health examination. He is at the 60th percentile for length and weight. Vital signs are within normal limits. The abdomen is soft and nontender. The external genitalia appear normal. Examination shows a single palpable testicle in the right hemiscrotum. The scrotum is nontender and not enlarged. There is a palpable mass in the left inguinal canal. Biopsy of the mass shows marked fibrotic changes with prominent Leydig cells and hypoplastic Sertoli cells.  The patient's parents are advised that the mass should be removed.  Which of the following is the most likely explanation for the need for surgery in this patient?

Quizplus · Accepted Answer

Eductional Objective: In undescended testes, the seminiferous tubules atrophy if uncorrected due to higher body temperatures, resulting in decreased fertility and increased risk for malignancy.  Orchiopexy (surgical placement of the testes in the scrotal sac) can minimize damage and decrease risk for testicular cancer.

A 10-Old Boy Is Brought to the Physician for a Health