A 41-year-old woman comes to the office as a new patient. She recently moved to the area. She feels well. She has dyslipidemia treated with pravastatin. Her past three Pap smears have shown no abnormalities; the most recent Pap smear was 2 years ago. The patient has had prediabetes for the last 2 years. She is 155 cm (5 ft 1 in) tall and weighs 70 kg (154 lb) ; BMI is 29 kg/m2. Her pulse is 68/min and blood pressure is 129/78 mm Hg. Physical examination shows no abnormalities. Laboratory results show a fasting blood glucose of 157 mg/dL and serum creatinine of 0.7 mg/dL. Hemoglobin A1c is 7.4%. Urine assay shows no detectable albuminuria. Which of the following renal changes is most likely present in this patient at this time?
A) Decreased peritubular capillary oncotic pressure
B) Decreased intraglomerular capillary pressure
C) Glomerular atrophy
D) Increased glomerular filtration rate
E) Increased oncotic pressure in Bowman's space
Correct Answer:
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