A 66-year-old man visits the clinic after experiencing two bouts of hematuria over the previous month. The prostate is found to be indurated and devoid of palpable nodules during digital rectal examination. The exhibit displays a picture from a transrectal prostate biopsy.
The most likely underlying reason for this patient's symptoms is which of the following?
A) Acute bacterial infection of the prostate
B) Benign hyperplasia of the prostatic stroma
C) Chronic bacterial inflammation of the prostate
D) Invasive carcinoma arising from the urethra
E) Neoplastic proliferation of prostate gland cells
Correct Answer:
Verified
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