A 16-year-old boy comes to the physician because his parents are concerned about gynecomastia. Physical examination shows bilateral gynecomastia, sparse pubic hair. Genital examination shows microphallus and bilateral swelling in the groin region.. Serum studies show increased levels of luteinizing hormone and normal follicle-stimulating hormone and an increased serum testosterone. Semen analysis reveals severe oligospermia. Which of the following mechanisms is the most likely cause of this patient's condition?
A) Androgen receptor dysfunction
B) Damage to seminiferous tubules
C) Ejaculatory duct obstruction
D) Exogenous androgen use
E) Impaired Leydig cell function
Correct Answer:
Verified
Q554: A 15-year-old boy is brought to the
Q555: A 54-year-old woman comes to the physician
Q556: A 21-year-old college student is brought to
Q557: For the past several months, a 43-year-old
Q558: A 32-year-old lady is sent to the
Q560: A 76-year-old man comes to the office
Q561: A 22-year-old woman is brought to the
Q562: A 52-year-old lady arrives at the clinic
Q563: A 14-year-old girl is brought to the
Q564: A 43-year-old woman comes to the physician
Unlock this Answer For Free Now!
View this answer and more for free by performing one of the following actions
Scan the QR code to install the App and get 2 free unlocks
Unlock quizzes for free by uploading documents