A 17-year-old boy is brought to the clinic due to poor vision at night. The patient developed mild difficulty seeing at night about 4 months ago, and it has slowly worsened. Visual field examination shows visual loss in the midperiphery. External eye examination reveals normal tear formation. Funduscopic examination shows bilateral optic disc pallor, attenuation of retinal vessels, and areas of dark discoloration in the retina. Which of the following is the most likely mechanism of this patient's visual impairment?
A) Biallelic inactivation of RB1 gene
B) Genetic progressive retinal dystrophy
C) Increased intracranial pressure
D) Poor aqueous outflow due to narrow angle
E) Retinal artery occlusion
Correct Answer:
Verified
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