A 20-year-old woman comes to the office due to gross hematuria. She otherwise feels well and has had no recent illnesses. She had a prior episode of hematuria 2 years ago that resolved spontaneously. The patient was diagnosed with type 1 diabetes mellitus approximately a year ago and is taking daily insulin injections. She works in a day care center and does not use tobacco, alcohol, or illicit drugs. Temperature is 37 C (98.6 F), blood pressure is 120/80 mm Hg, and pulse is 80/min. Physical examination shows no abnormalities. Laboratory results are as follows: Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

Question

A 20-year-old woman comes to the office due to gross hematuria.  She otherwise feels well and has had no recent illnesses.  She had a prior episode of hematuria 2 years ago that resolved spontaneously.  The patient was diagnosed with type 1 diabetes mellitus approximately a year ago and is taking daily insulin injections.  She works in a day care center and does not use tobacco, alcohol, or illicit drugs.  Temperature is 37 C (98.6 F), blood pressure is 120/80 mm Hg, and pulse is 80/min.  Physical examination shows no abnormalities.  Laboratory results are as follows:  Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

Quizplus · Accepted Answer

Eductional Objective: IgA nephropathy is characterized as recurrent hematuria that occurs spontaneously or within a few days of upper respiratory or pharyngeal infection (synpharyngitic hematuria).  Unlike other causes of immune complex-mediated nephritic syndromes (eg, poststreptococcal glomerulonephritis), IgA nephropathy is associated with normal serum complement levels.

A 20-Year-Old Woman Comes to the Office Due to Gross