A 49-year-old woman arrives at the emergency department complaining of squeezing chest pain and profuse sweating for the past two hours. Diabetes mellitus type 2 is a diet-controlled condition. The electrocardiogram shows ST-segment elevation in leads I, aVL, and V1-V4. The patient is immediately taken to the cardiac catheterization laboratory, where it is discovered that the left anterior descending coronary artery is completely occluded. Percutaneous coronary intervention with stenting is used to open the blockage, but she then experiences recurrent and sustained episodes of ventricular arrhythmia. She is given an antiarrhythmic medication that binds preferentially to rapidly depolarizing and ischemic ventricular myocardial fibers while having little effect on normal ventricular myocardium. Which of the following agents was most likely used in this patient?
A) Adenosine
B) Digoxin
C) Diltiazem
D) Ibutilide
E) Lidocaine
F) Metoprolol
G) Procainamide
Correct Answer:
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