A 30-year-old woman comes to the physician for the evaluation of irregular menses. She has menses 4- 5 times a year. Over the past 3 years. She failed to become pregnant despite having sexual intercourse with her husband 3 times a week. She has no prior medical diseases. She is 170 cm tall and weight 90 kg BMI 31 kg/m2. Physical examination shows coarse hair on her chin and abdomen. The patient is initially prescribed clomiphene therapy but fails to conceive. She then receives ovulation induction therapy with a short course of menotropins followed by a single injection of human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG). The use of hCG therapy primarily mimics which of the following physiologic events?

Question

Quizplus · Accepted Answer

Eductional Objective: Anovulation is a common cause of infertility.  Menotropin (human menopausal gonadotropin) is a treatment option that acts like FSH and triggers the formation of a dominant ovarian follicle.  Ovulation is then induced by administration of human chorionic gonadotropin, which mimics the LH surge.

A 30-Year-Old Woman Comes to the Physician for the Evaluation