A 48-year-old woman presents to the clinic with a complaint of irregular vaginal bleeding for the last 12 months. Currently, she has been bleeding for the last 10 days, the bleeding is light, one to two pads per day. She is not sexually active and is followed at the clinic for hypertension. After a detailed history and exam you diagnose this patient with ovulatory dysfunction. The most appropriate pharmacological treatment to regulate her bleeding in this case is:
A) Antifibrinolytic agents
B) Monophasic oral contraceptives
C) Antiprostaglandins
D) Medroxyprogesterone acetate
Correct Answer:
Verified
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