D.B. is 36 weeks pregnant and has GDMA1 and no other complications. She usually has one or two mildly elevated postprandial blood sugars each week. Which of the following would be a part of your management?
A) Await labor as you would a woman without GDM
B) Begin biweekly antenatal testing this week
C) Begin oral medication or insulin
D) Induce labor at 40 weeks
Correct Answer:
Verified
Q5: R.S. underwent a one-step, 2-hour oral glucose
Q6: Healthy eating is the cornerstone of successful
Q7: L.L. has GDM and has been following
Q8: M.M. has GDMA1 and gets her blood
Q9: Women with diabetes during pregnancy are at
Q10: S.R. has GDM. She loves to eat
Q12: M.M is currently 32 weeks pregnant and
Q13: Evidence shows which of the following to
Q14: Which of the following is true of
Q15: In addition to assuming a healthy lifestyle,
Unlock this Answer For Free Now!
View this answer and more for free by performing one of the following actions
Scan the QR code to install the App and get 2 free unlocks
Unlock quizzes for free by uploading documents