You Are a Nurse Practitioner Comanaging the Care of a 20-Year-Old

You are a nurse practitioner comanaging the care of a 20-year-old woman at 36 weeks gestation with a diagnosis of preeclampsia without severe features in the outpatient setting. Her highest blood pressure was previously 144/86 but today she presents with a single blood pressure of 155/98. In addition to evaluating for preeclampsia with end-organ involvement, which of the following is the most appropriate immediate management plan?

A) Change her diagnosis to severe preeclampsia and transfer care for induction of labor.
B) Collect a 24-hour urine sample to assess proteinuria.
C) Order antihypertensives STAT and consult with your collaborating physician.
D) Recheck her blood pressure in 15 minutes and follow procedures for accurate blood pressure measurement.