A 45-year-old male with remote history of a deep vein thrombosis to the right lower extremity presents with a 3-month history of a shallow, wet ulcer superior to the right medial malleolus. Wound is ruddy red with yellow fibrinous slough. Patient complains of dull aching pain, relieved with elevation. Physical exam is significant for woody leg edema bilaterally, darkened hyperpigmentation and dry scaly skin to the distal lower legs. Distal pulses are 2+ bilaterally. This wound is most likely a description of:
A) Neuropathic ulcer
B) Venous leg ulcer
C) Arterial leg ulcer
D) Traumatic leg ulcer
Correct Answer:
Verified
Q2: When treating most open wounds it is
Q3: You are treating a noninfected chronic ulcer
Q4: What test can be done to assess
Q5: A 55-year-old female patient with a 20-year
Q6: A 45-year-old male presents with a laceration
Q7: In aging patients wounds are acquired more
Q8: In treating a venous leg ulcer, the
Q9: A 72-year-old male presents with a 1-month
Q10: The definition of a chronic wound is
Q11: The mainstay of therapy in treatment of
Unlock this Answer For Free Now!
View this answer and more for free by performing one of the following actions
Scan the QR code to install the App and get 2 free unlocks
Unlock quizzes for free by uploading documents