A perimenopausal woman tells the primary care NP that she is having hot flashes and increasingly severe mood swings.The woman has had a hysterectomy.The NP should prescribe:
A) estrogen-only HT.
B) low-dose oral contraceptive therapy.
C) selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor therapy until menopause begins.
D) estrogen-progesterone HT.
Correct Answer:
Verified
Q2: Osteopenia is diagnosed in a 55-year-old woman
Q3: A 50-year-old woman with a family history
Q4: A 52-year-old woman reports having hot flashes
Q5: A 55-year-old woman has not had menstrual
Q6: A male patient tells the primary care
Q8: The primary care NP sees a woman
Q9: A patient who has diabetes mellitus and
Q10: A man who has secondary hypogonadism associated
Q11: A 50-year-old woman reports severe,frequent hot flashes
Q12: A thin 52-year-old woman who has recently
Unlock this Answer For Free Now!
View this answer and more for free by performing one of the following actions
Scan the QR code to install the App and get 2 free unlocks
Unlock quizzes for free by uploading documents