A 50-year-old woman who is postmenopausal is taking an aromatase inhibitor as part of a breast cancer treatment regimen.She calls her primary care NP to report that she has had hot flashes and increased vaginal discharge but no bleeding.The NP should:

Question

Quizplus · Accepted Answer

Any abnormal vaginal discharge should be reported immediately and should be evaluated with a gynecologic examination to rule out carcinoma.She is not showing signs of ovulation,so contraception is not necessary.She should not stop taking the medication unless the gynecologic examination is positive.These are common side effects but are not always normal.

A 50-Year-Old Woman Who Is Postmenopausal Is Taking an Aromatase