Independents have increased in numbers in recent decades. Can we then infer that partisanship is no longer much of a determinative factor in American elections?
A) Yes we can but we do not know why
B) No, because declining turnout and negative campaigning have actually increased the polarization of the partisans left in the electorate
C) No, we cannot because declining turnout and negative campaigning have decreased the polarization of the partisans left in the electorate promoting opportunities for bipartisanship across the board
D) The question cannot be evaluated on its own terms; therefore we cannot answer it
Correct Answer:
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