Basson and Brotto (2004)suggest That the Current Definition of Female

Basson and Brotto (2004) suggest that the current definition of female arousal disorder focuses too much on "genital events," and not enough on subjective arousal.What is the essence of their argument?

A) that many women do not consider absence of physical arousal to be a problem
B) that the DSM 5's emphasis on genital events reflects a male bias
C) that most women who meet the criteria for female arousal disorder are nevertheless able to reach orgasm during intercourse
D) that studies have shown that women with arousal disorder often show normal vaginal responding to erotic movies despite reporting low subjective arousal