What are some of the reasons for why the correlation coefficient is often considered to be the preferred effect size to use in a meta-analysis? (circle all that apply)
A) it is easy to interpret
B) it is easy to compare (and aggregate) effect sizes from studies that used any combination of dichotomous and continuous measurements of variables
C) studies are more likely to report correlations than they are to report group differences
D) correlations do not take sample size into account while other effect size estimates do
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