Having a model that controls for fixed effects even when the fixed effects are 0 ( $\alpha$ _i=0 for all units) will not cause bias.
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Question

Having a model that controls for fixed effects even when the fixed effects are 0 ($\alpha$_i=0 for all units) will not cause bias. :

Quizplus · Accepted Answer

Including fixed effects in a model when they are 0 for all units will not cause bias, as it is equivalent to not including them at all. However, in some cases this may lead to inefficient estimation, especially if the number of fixed effects is large relative to the sample size.

Having a Model That Controls for Fixed Effects Even When α\alphaα

Having a Model That Controls for Fixed Effects Even When $\alpha$