What does it mean for a moral duty to be absolute? Give an example of a moral rule (besides the principle of universalizability) that Kant believed to be absolute. Does the principle of universalizability require us to regard the moral rule you mention as absolute? Why or why not?

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The Answer is For a moral duty to be absolute, it means that it is universally binding and applies in all circumstances, without exception. In other words, there are no situations in which it is permissible to violate an absolute moral duty.

An example of a moral rule that Kant believed to be absolute, besides the principle of universalizability, is the principle of respect for persons. According to Kant, we have a moral duty to treat all individuals as ends in themselves, and not merely as means to an end. This means that we must always respect the autonomy and dignity of others, and never use them solely for our own purposes.

The principle of universalizability does require us to regard the moral rule of respect for persons as absolute. This is because the principle of universalizability states that an action is morally permissible if and only if its maxim (or underlying principle) can be consistently and coherently willed as a universal law. In the case of respect for persons, if we were to will a universal law that allowed for the disregard of others' autonomy and dignity, it would lead to a contradiction, as it would undermine the very concept of respecting persons as ends in themselves. Therefore, the principle of universalizability necessitates that the moral rule of respect for persons be regarded as absolute.

What Does It Mean for a Moral Duty to Be