In a post hoc fallacy "Q" is presumed to be the cause of "Z" because:
A) Z precedes Q closely in time
B) Z follows Q closely in time
C) Q and Z happen at the same time
D) Every time Z happens, Q happens

Question

Quizplus · Accepted Answer

In a post hoc fallacy, it is assumed that because Z follows Q closely in time, Q must be the cause of Z. However, this is a flawed assumption since correlation does not imply causation. Just because two events occur close together in time does not mean that one caused the other.

In a Post Hoc Fallacy "Q" Is Presumed to Be