If the u_i's are binomially distributed, then $\hat { \beta } _ { 1 }$ will be biased.

Question

Quizplus · Accepted Answer

The statement seems to be a mix-up or typo. However, if we interpret it as referring to the estimation of a parameter (like $\beta_1$) in a regression model, the estimator $\hat{\beta}_1$ is unbiased if the underlying assumptions of the linear regression model are met, regardless of whether the errors are binomially distributed.

If the Ui's Are Binomially Distributed, Then β^1\hat { \beta } _ { 1 }β^​1​

If the U_i's Are Binomially Distributed, Then $\hat { \beta } _ { 1 }$