A 36-year-old male admitted to the hospital with a diagnosis of sub-arachnoid hemorrhage presents symptoms like aphasia and hemiparesis. The nurse is aware that these neurologic deficits, which may be present immediately after a sub-arachnoid hemorrhage, are primarily due to:
A) Electrolyte imbalances
B) Tissue necrosis
C) Vascular spasms
D) Profound blood loss
Correct Answer:
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