Question 1

Which of the following drugs is the treatment of choice for Candida albicans infection?

Accepted Answer

The drug that is the treatment of choice for Candida albicans infection is fluconazole. Fluconazole is an antifungal that works by preventing the fungal enzyme Cytochrome P450 from working. In addition, itraconazole is also considered a drug of choice for systemic Candida albicans infection.

Question 2

Which of the following undesirable events does not belong to NSAIDs?

Accepted Answer

The undesirable event that does not belong to NSAIDs is respiratory failure. The common side effects of NSAIDs include nausea/vomiting, peptic ulcer aggravation, heart burn, dyspepsia, and nephritis.

Question 3

Which of the following drugs is considered a drug of choice to decrease uric acid levels?

Accepted Answer

A drug that is considered a drug of choice to decrease uric acid levels is allopurinol. It is an anti-gout drug that potentially decreases uric acid formation by inhibiting the enzyme forming uric acid, xanthine oxidase.

Question 4

Which of the following diseases is Acyclovir (Zovirax) a drug of choice for?

Accepted Answer

Acyclovir (Zovirax) is a drug of choice for HSV 1 and 2 and VZV (herpes virus infections). It is an antiviral that is metabolized to a much more potent form, inhibiting the enzyme DNA polymerase. It is excreted unchanged in the urine and therefore must be used cautiously in the presence of renal impairment.

Question 5

Which of the following drugs is not a topical antibiotic?

Accepted Answer

The drug that is not a topical antibiotic is ceftriaxone. It is an example of an intravenous 3rd generation cephalosporin, which is never used in topical form.

Question 6

Which of the following effects is included among the most common side effects seen after prolonged use of angiotensin converting enzyme inhibitors?

Accepted Answer

The effect that is included among the most common side effects seen after prolonged use of angiotensin converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors is cough. This cough that is dry in nature may take up to a month to subside and if one ACE inhibitor causes cough, it is likely that the others will too.

Question 7

Which of the following drugs is not a calcium channel blocker?

Accepted Answer

The drug that is not a calcium channel blocker is metoprolol. Instead, it is a beta channel antagonist. Commonly used calcium channel blockers include nifedipine, amlodipine, and verapamil. They work by inhibiting movement of calcium into the cell and thus, do not allow for vasoconstriction.

Question 8

Complications of high-dose glucocorticoid therapy include which of the following?

Accepted Answer

Complications of high-dose glucocorticoid therapy include suppression of the hypothalamic-pituitary-adrenal axis (HPA). The HPA regulates many processes including reactions to stress, digestion, immune system, moods and emotions, sexuality, and energy storage and expenditure. Patients treated for longer than 2 weeks on high dose glucorticoid therapy need to be tapered off glucocorticoids slowly to avoid adrenal insufficiency.

Question 9

Which of the following antibiotics can be nephrotoxic and should be used with caution in renal insufficiency?

Accepted Answer

The antibiotics that can be nephrotoxic and should be used with caution in renal insufficiency are the aminoglycosides and vancomycin. These drugs directly impact the proximal tubules of the nephron and may be contraindicated or used only with extreme care in renal insufficiency.

Question 10

Which of the following is not a frequent adverse effect commonly seen with beta blockers?

Accepted Answer

Tachycardia is not a frequent adverse effect commonly seen with beta blockers. The adverse effects commonly seen with beta blockers include impotence, exacerbation of asthma, bradycardia, atrioventricular block, and sedation.

Question 11

Which of the following statements is true of anesthetics?

Accepted Answer

The statement that is true of anesthetics is: "drugs with low blood solubility will rapidly induce anesthesia." The blood solubility of an anesthetic is the physical property that determines both speed of induction and time to recovery.

Question 12

Which of the following is a common adverse effect of hydrochlorothiazide?

Accepted Answer

A common adverse effect of hydrochlorothiazide is potassium wasting. Because thiazides decrease the reabsorption of sodium in the distal convoluted tubule, aldosterone secretion is increased and a compensatory response is evoked that releases potassium.

Question 13

Which of the following beta-lactam drugs has good activity against beta-lactamase-producing organisms and penetrates readily into cerebrospinal fluid?

Accepted Answer

Imipenem is the only drug listed that is effective against many beta-lactamase-producing organisms and penetrate the blood-brain barrier of the cerebrospinal fluid. Imipenem is a beta lactam that has a broad spectrum of use against anaerobic and aerobic bacteria, particularly Pseudomonas aeruginosa and Enterococcus species.

Question 14

Which of the following agents used in general anesthesia is least likely to cause postoperative nausea and vomiting?

Accepted Answer

The agent used in general anesthesia that is least likely to cause postoperative nausea and vomiting is propofol. Propofol may reduce blood pressure through vasodilating and negative inotropic effects on the heart, but is notable for rapid recovery and its freedom from postoperative nausea and vomiting due to its rapid distribution into tissues.

Question 15

Which of the following is a common adverse effect of lithium carbonate?

Accepted Answer

Nephrogenic diabetes insipidus is a common adverse effect of lithium carbonate at therapeutic dosage. This syndrome occurs with polyuria and polydipsia and such patients should have their lithium discontinued as to avoid dehydration and permanent damage to the kidneys.
Nephrogenic diabetes insipidus (NDI) can be caused by long-term use of lithium carbonate, which is a medication commonly used to treat bipolar disorder. Lithium can interfere with the kidneys' ability to respond to vasopressin, which can result in the symptoms of NDI.
The exact mechanism by which lithium causes NDI is not fully understood, but it is believed to involve changes in the expression and activity of certain proteins in the kidneys, including aquaporin-2, which is a channel that allows water to be reabsorbed back into the body. Lithium may also affect the signaling pathways involved in the kidneys' response to vasopressin.
The risk of developing NDI from lithium use increases with the duration and dosage of treatment. People taking lithium may experience symptoms such as excessive thirst, frequent urination, dehydration, and electrolyte imbalances. If left untreated, NDI can lead to serious complications, such as kidney damage, seizures, and coma.
Regular monitoring of kidney function and electrolyte levels is essential for people taking lithium to detect any signs of NDI early and prevent complications. In some cases, reducing the dosage of lithium or switching to a different medication may be necessary to manage NDI.

Question 16

Which of the following enzymes is inhibited by drugs of the class to which amoxicillin belongs?

Accepted Answer

The enzyme that is inhibited by drugs of the class to which amoxicillin belongs is transpeptidase. All of the beta-lactam antibiotics (penicillins, cephalosporins, carbapenems, monobactams) inhibit one of the final steps in the synthesis of the bacterial cell wall, cross-linking of peptidoglycan chains by transpeptidase

Question 17

Which of the following drugs is selectively antifungal because of the difference between cholesterol (in mammalian cell membranes) and ergosterol (in fungal membranes)?

Accepted Answer

The drug that is selectively antifungal because of the difference between cholesterol (in mammalian cell membranes) and ergosterol (in fungal membranes) is amphotericin B. Amphotericin B binds selectively to ergosterol and forms artificial pores in fungal membranes.

Question 18

Which of the following drugs is useful in rheumatoid arthritis because of its binding with tumor necrosis factor alpha (TNF-alpha)?

Accepted Answer

The drug that is useful in rheumatoid arthritis because of its binding with tumor necrosis factor alpha (TNF-alpha) is infliximab. Infliximab is a chimeric monoclonal antibody that binds TNF-alpha and is useful in rheumatoid arthritis, ulcerative colitis, and several other immune diseases.

Question 19

Which of the following antifungal drugs is strongly associated with drug interactions resulting from inhibition of CYP 3A4?

Accepted Answer

The antifungal drug that is strongly associated with drug interactions resulting from inhibition of CYP 3A is ketoconazole. Because CYP 3A4 is involved in the metabolism of almost 50% of the drugs in use, ketoconazole is implicated in many pharmacokinetic drug interactions.

Question 20

Which of the following drugs reduces LDL cholesterol by inhibiting an intestinal transport protein?

Accepted Answer

The drug that reduces LDL cholesterol by inhibiting an intestinal transport protein is ezetimibe. It is an important newer drug that inhibits cholesterol and bile acid absorption from the gut by inhibiting the epithelial transport protein NPC1L1.

Quiz 1: Pharmacology and Protein Structures